
20 June 1998; Issue #197
Contents
Avi wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
Our youngest son was born with a disease known
as "celiac" which imposes upon him a life-long diet
restriction. He cannot ingest any form of wheat or other grains
which contain gluten. If he does so, it will cause him to become
very ill. We, as a family, have learned to adjust to this "inconvenience"
and even when we eat out, we manage to find kosher gluten-free
foods that our son can eat.
But the other day, we ran into a problem, when
we decided to go out for pizza at a kosher pizza restaurant which
we had not tried before. Since we had done this many times before
at other pizza places, we knew the drill. My wife prepared a
special pizza dough made from gluten-free flour. She laid it
in a round aluminum "chalavi" (dairy) pan (we keep kashrut).
In the past, we would simply request from workers
at the pizza place which we were visiting to add the sauce and
cheese and toppings to our pre-prepared pan with the dough, and
cook it in their ovens, as normal. The pizza always turned out
great, and our son could enjoy his own pizza, along with us (we
always order a "normal" mishpachti-size (family) pizza
for the rest of us).
But at this particular pizza restaurant, the night-shift
manager refused to make the pizza for our son, because he cited
"perhaps your pan is not kosher. I cannot take this chance."
Now, I must tell you Rabbi, I wear a kippa (yarmulke) and was
doing so at the restaurant. Yet no amount of arguments
would have convinced this manager that our pan was kosher enough
for his ovens. Was his "ruling" correct? I dread to
think that this is how far we are taking our kashrut laws, to
the point that a person cannot eat in a commercial place, because
of his illness, because that is the upshot of this whole story.
Granted, it is not every day that we take our own cooking pans
to a restaurant, but then again, what's wrong with finding creative
solutions? Was our creative solution unkosher?
Dear Avi,
Firstly, I wish your son a complete recovery. Your
solution was very creative and I applaud your "let's-find-a-solution"
attitude.
In this particular instance, however, I think the
pizza shop manager did the correct thing by refusing. The night
manager is not necessarily a kashrut expert. And even
if he were, the people who eat at the restaurant are relying not
upon him but rather upon the kashrut supervisor who is
sent by the kashrut agency. Therefore, the night manager
should not introduce any changes in the food-making process without
the express permission of the kashrut supervising agency.
It's not so much a matter of kashrut as it is a matter
of policy.
Perhaps if you contact the kashrut supervision
agency and make an arrangement with them they will allow you to
"bring your own."
Contents
Yosef Dovid Rosenberg wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
Did the Jews build the Great Pyramids of Egypt?
Dear Yosef Dovid Rosenberg,
According to the verse in the Torah the Jews built
storage cities, Pithom and Rameses. Pithom is probably ancient
Tanis, and Rameses has been identified as either Pelusium or Quantir.
None of these places had pyramids, and pyramids were certainly
not used for storage. They were tombs of the Pharaohs.
Sources:
Contents
Tev Djmal from Sao Paulo, Brazil wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
If I'm staying at a hotel during Shabbat, can
I carry anything outside the room, or would this be a desecration
of Shabbat? For example, can I leave my room and carry the key
with me?
Name@Withheld from Hebrew University, Jerusalem wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
In a hotel on Shabbat, what
is considered "public" and "private" domain?
Is the entire hotel considered "private" domain? Is
it permissible to carry objects to and from one's hotel room?
Dear Tev Djmal and Name@Withheld,
I asked this question to Rabbi Zalman Nechemia Goldberg,
shlita, who ruled that it is permissible to carry items
inside a hotel. Since you do not own the room and the management
reserves the right to enter your room to clean, plus the fact
that the furnishings belong to the hotel, the hotel is considered
one private domain.
Sources:
- See Shulchan Aruch 382:18
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Michael Poppers from Elizabeth, NJ wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
Pirkei Avot is commonly translated "Chapters
of the Fathers." When the tractate known as Avot (indeed,
when all the tractates) was redacted, was it then divided into
such chapters, or were the chapters - like those of the Pentateuch
- divisions made sometime afterwards?
Dear Michael Poppers,
The chapters of the Mishna are original divisions
by Rabbi Yehuda Hanasi, who compiled the Mishna (170 CE). The
tractate called Avot meaning Fathers became known
as "Chapters of the Fathers" because of the custom to
read one chapter each week between Passover and Shavuot.
The chapter divisions in printed texts of the Pentateuch
are of relatively recent origin, created by Christian monks in
the 13th century. In the Torah scroll there are different divisions
(called parshiot petuchot and setumot) signified
by spaces between blocks of text. These divisions are the original
divisions revealed to Moshe through prophecy. There is another
ancient Jewish tradition called sedarim by which the Pentateuch
is divided into 154 portions. This was customary when the public
Torah reading took three years to complete reading the entire
Torah. Today the public Torah reading is divided into 53 weekly
portions and the Torah is completed once a year.
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This morning in shul, I noticed that during
chazarat hashatz (cantor's repetition of the silent prayer)
I responded "amen" 26 times. However, my one
friend responded "amen" only 22 times, and my
other friend only three times! Can you explain why? (By the
way, we all had finished our silent prayer completely, we all
paid attention during the entire repetition, and we all responded
properly.)
(Riddle submitted by Rabbi Avraham Connack, Jerusalem)
The Public Domain
Comments, quibbles, and reactions concerning previous "Ask-the-Rabbi"
features.
Contents
Re: Intermarriage (Ask the Rabbi #191):
This is a response to those who wrote in about intermarriage.
I am intermarried. When I initially got married I didn't think
anything about my religion. I felt that as long as you were happy
it was O.K. I didn't even know that intermarriage was prohibited.
As the years went on and we had children some things changed.
It is hard to explain, but there were different events that changed
my life. Well, anyway, so it goes I became very religious. To
reiterate, I didn't come from a religious background, I didn't
have a Jewish education, but there were events that changed my
life.
Anyway, I became kosher, I observe Sabbath (by myself
all the time), I worry about Israel (by myself all the time).
My daughter became very religious and is now going to a religious
girls' high school. My son is not as religious but wants to go
to a Hebrew High. I feel fortunate in this respect, but I am
very alone in my thoughts, in my dreams; it is a lonely lifestyle.
I also realize that it is harder for Jewish men because the children
are not considered Jews. Some of the intermarried couples that
I know have non-Jewish partners that have an anti-Semitism that
comes out from time to time. It comes out in the form of remarks
or innuendoes that are hurtful. Many Jews don't realize the generations
that are lost though intermarriage. We need to promote Jewish
education, real Jewish education. Too many souls have been lost
in the Diaspora. Too many Jews don't appreciate one another.
Too many of us look after the wrong values. We don't know what
Torah has to offer, we don't know the jewel we have lost until
it is too late. I am still married, and struggling with conflicts
every day. It is hard to break up a marriage with children involved.
I hope any readers considering intermarriage will use more head
then heart, show some restraint and hold a moratorium for a while.
Name & email@Withheld
In a recent column you wrote: "By marrying
a non-Jew one thereby ends over 3,000 years of Jewish
continuity, effectively cutting oneself and one's
offspring off from what it means to be Jewish." Isn't this
statement at best misleading? Without in any way condoning intermarriage,
about half the offspring of intermarriages are halachically Jewish.
When a Jewish woman intermarries, the chances of the children
assimilating are clearly far greater than that in the average
Jewish family (which are already very high). Yet why should we
write off any Jew? I know from personal experience of years working
with students at NameWithheld University of numerous cases of
children of Jewish mothers and non-Jewish fathers who have discovered
their roots and returned to a life of observance. Why was no
mention made in your column of the fact that a child born to a
Jewish mother is halachically Jewish?
Name & email@Withheld
Ohrnet responds: True,
a child born to a Jewish mother is Jewish. Our point was that
intermarriage, for a man or woman, generally means the end of
the Jewish tradition in that family. The child of such a marriage,
even when halachically Jewish, usually ends up assimilated. We
too at Ohr Somayach have first-hand knowledge that there are exceptions.
Re: Naming After Living Relatives (Ask The Rabbi #194):
In a recent "Ask the Rabbi" Ohr Somayach
wrote: "It is the custom of Jews of European descent not
to name children after living relatives." Are we now excluding
Spain, Portugal, and the Balkans from Europe? The Jewish communities
of these areas are Sefardim, and they, like the Sefardim of North
Africa and the Middle East, do name for living relatives, as do
the Jews of Italy (who do not consider themselves Sefardim because
the Italian Jewish community, the oldest in Europe, long predates
the Jewish communities of Spain and Portugal.) Rather, should
one not say that it is the custom of Jews of Northern and Eastern
European descent not to name children after living relatives?
B'shalom uv'hesed,
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