
22 November 1997; Issue #168
Contents
David wrote:
I'm 37 with no real Jewish education. Sometimes
I feel overwhelmed with the idea of studying Torah, yet at this
time of life I have a real hunger for it. I haven't started a
family yet - I don't want them to inherit the spiritual void that
I did. Any ideas?
Dear David,
A friend of mine from Yeshiva, when his wife was
expecting their first, broke the news to me by saying: "I've
got eight years now to study Bava Metzia!" (Bava Metzia
is traditionally the first tractate boys begin when they start
studying Talmud at age eight.) We all feel a bit lacking when
it comes to our children's Torah education.
I support your desire to start studying. It is basically
the only real cure for for assimilation and intermarriage in the
Jewish community at large, and in our own future generations in
particular. There's no time like now to begin.
The best thing is if you can give a block of time
- it doesn't have to be too long - but enough so that you can
make a real foundation which you can build upon. A year of study
would be great, but even a few weeks would make a big difference.
Where do you live? Exactly how much Jewish education
do you have? Where you are with respect to job or career? Any
info you give can help me suggest where you should study and for
how long. If you can't take out a block of time, I might be able
to help you arrange a study partner or Torah classes where you
are.
I don't think you have to worry about your children
"inheriting a spiritual void." Regardless of your own
level of actual knowledge, you can raise your children in a solid
Jewish community and send them to a good Jewish school. Then,
all they need to inherit from you is your "hunger" for
spirituality! (By the way, who did you inherit your spiritual
hunger from? Could it be that your parents deserve a little credit?)
Rachel Fyman wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
What did Yishai do that gave him the merit to
be mentioned always as the father of David, as opposed to, for
example, Amram who is rarely mentioned as the father of Moses?
Thanks.
Dear Rachel Fyman,
Often the Tanach refers to David as "David
son of Yishai" whereas the Torah never refers to Moses as
"Moses son of Amram." I think the reason is that David's
lineage is of paramount importance. Since David is the founder
of the monarchy and the messianic dynasty, the Torah emphasizes
that he is a descendant of Yishai who was from the royal tribe
of Judah.
Moses, on the other hand, founded the "Torah
Dynasty." Through diligence and determination, anyone in
the world regardless of lineage can become a Torah scholar. Therefore
the Torah de-emphasizes Moses's lineage.
Interestingly, the Torah always refers to Elazar
and Ithamar as "the sons of Aharon." Here too, their
lineage is emphasized because they owe their positions to their
father, Aharon, who was the High Priest.
Eric Posnack wrote:
Dear Rabbi,
I always enjoy reading your email and have been
passing it on to some of my friends. I think it's great that
you are taking advantage of the Internet to reach out to so many
people. Here's my question: One thing has always bothered me
in services. It's the touching of the Torah with the prayer-book
and kissing the prayer-book afterwards. This strikes me as a
form of idolatry. It appears to be worshipping the Torah as an
idol and we're instructed by the Torah not to do that. How is
this act not idolatry? Thanks again for your many emails, and
I look forward to your response.
Dear Eric Posnack,
A kiss is a way of expressing love and affection,
not only a means of worship. When a father kisses his child it
does not mean he worships him. We love the Torah, as it is our
way of maintaining closeness to Hashem, Therefore we express
our love in the earthly manner we are used to, such as kissing,
in order to encourage our feeling of love towards Hashem and the
Torah.
Rabbi Mordechai J. Gold from Indianapolis, Indiana wrote:
I am a Mashgiach in a mid-western city. I am involved with very secular Jews.
I would like to have guests for Shabbat, but the problem is that
there is the definite chance that there will be chillul Shabbos
[desecration of Shabbat] like driving their car to my home! Am
I allowed to have them over to my home for the Shabbat meal?
Dear Rabbi Gold,
As you know, it's forbidden to cause a fellow Jew
to transgress the Torah. This is true regardless of that person's
level of observance or affiliation. But what if your intention
is to show the other person the beauty of Torah observance?
Your question was asked to a renowned halachic authority
in Jerusalem. He said that if you have a proven talent for reaching
out to non-observant people then you can invite them for Shabbat,
but the invitation must include the option to stay within walking
distance for the entire Shabbat. Even if you're sure they'll
chose to drive, you've done your part by sincerely offering to
accommodate them.
Contents
Last week we asked:
How is water from the sea
like atonement like a cow?
(Say these clues in Hebrew
And then you'll know just how!)
How's an onion in the shade
like three that he kneaded?
(These clues, too, are much clearer,
When in Hebrew they're repeated.)
Answer: In Hebrew, these
are all homographs - that is, they are pairs of words that
are spelled the same but pronounced differently.
Water / From the sea = Mayim / Miyam
Atonement / Like a cow = Kapara / K'para
An onion / In the shade = Batzal / Batzel
Three / That he kneaded = Shalosh / Shelash
In Hebrew, these pairs of words are all spelled exactly
the same!
(Riddle courtesy of:
Kol Simcha English Radio, 103.5 FM
Friday mornings 9:30am -1:00pm)
The Public Domain
Comments, quibbles, and reactions concerning previous "Ask-the-Rabbi" features.
Contents
This is a problem I've faced more than once!
Is something "parev"
or "REALLY parev" (i.e., not cooked in a fleishig
or milchig pot). I think that the response should have
made clear that the potatoes cooked in a fleishig pot can't
be eaten at the same time as something milchig (or vice
versa). It's implied from the second sentence in your answer,
but not really clear to someone who didn't know about the issue.
Kol Tuv.
Jeremy Rose, Albans, UK
Please correct me if I'm wrong, but when you wrote
"If you eat food that is parve - neither milk nor meat -
which was cooked using clean "meat" utensils, you don't
need to wait six hours before eating milk foods." Shouldn't
it be made clear that although this is permitted, they may NOT
be eaten together (in the same meal) with dairy foods?
Rachi & Devorah Messing, Baltimore, MD
The Rabbi replies:
Food cooked in a clean milchig
or fleishig pot that had not been used for 24 hours
may be eaten together with either milk or meat. (Initially, one
shouldn't cook food in such a pot intending to eat it with
the opposite kind of food.) If, on the other hand, the food was
cooked in a pot that had been used within 24 hours for
milk or meat, the Beit Yosef permits eating the food together
with the opposite kind of food whereas the Remah forbids
this. The Sephardic custom generally follows the Beit Yosef
while the Ashkenazic custom generally follows the Remah.
d
Some other suggestions to answer your riddle about
the people in the Torah whose names spelled backwards describe
them.
Pufah / Ha'of - Puah cooed to the babies
and took care of them like birds and B'nei Yisroel are compared
to birds.
Lavan / Naval - Lavan was a low person,
a "naval."
Mamaleh@aol.com
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